Perhaps the best way to address Rome’s stance on Mary is to highlight what we know of Mary from the Scripture.
“Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us. Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife: And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.” – Matthew 1:23-25 KJV
The Scripture tells us that Mary was a virgin when she conceived Jesus. But was she a perpetual virgin as Roman Catholicism teaches? In Matthew 1:25, it says “and [Joseph] knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son.” Joseph did not have sexual relations with Mary “till” she had brought forth her firstborn son. Does this imply Joseph didn’t consummate his marriage with Mary until after the birth of Jesus?
What about these?
“Is not this the carpenter’s son? is not his mother called Mary? and his brethren, James, and Joses, and Simon, and Judas? And his sisters, are they not all with us? Whence then hath this man all these things?” – Matthew 13:55-56 KJV
“Among which was Mary Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James and Joses, and the mother of Zebedee’s children.” – Matthew 27:56 KJV
“But other of the apostles saw I none, save James the Lord’s brother.” – Galatians 1:19 KJV
In Matthew 13:55-56, the Jews specifically referred to Jesus’ mother Mary, His brothers James, Moses, Simon, and Judas, and His sisters. In Matthew 27:56, the Scripture identifies Mary as the mother of James and Joses. Clearly, Mary had other children. However, Rome argues that Jesus’ brothers were not blood brothers and the other Mary in Matthew 27 is not Mary, the mother of Jesus even though her children have the same names as Jesus’ brothers.
Rome teaches that Mary was born without original sin and lived a sinless life. Is there evidence of this in Scripture? If Mary never sinned, why does the Scripture teach that all have sinned?
“For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God” – Romans 3:23 KJV
Consider Luke 2:
“And when the days of her purification according to the law of Moses were accomplished, they brought him to Jerusalem, to present him to the Lord; (As it is written in the law of the Lord, Every male that openeth the womb shall be called holy to the Lord;) And to offer a sacrifice according to that which is said in the law of the Lord, A pair of turtledoves, or two young pigeons.” – Luke 2:22-24 KJV
Why did Mary offer a sacrifice to atone for her sins if she was sinless? According to Leviticus 12, this is the purpose of the sacrifice:
“And when the days of her purifying are fulfilled, for a son, or for a daughter, she shall bring a lamb of the first year for a burnt offering, and a young pigeon, or a turtledove, for a sin offering, unto the door of the tabernacle of the congregation, unto the priest: Who shall offer it before the LORD, and make an atonement for her; and she shall be cleansed from the issue of her blood. This is the law for her that hath born a male or a female.” – Leviticus 12:6-7 KJV
Lastly, why did Mary say this?
“And Mary said, My soul doth magnify the Lord, And my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour.” – Luke 1:46-47 KJV
If Mary was sinless, why would she need a savior? Rome will argue that God “saved” her from ever sinning. This usage of the word “saved” is quite a twist, not to mention absent from the pages of Scripture.
According to Roman Catholic tradition, Mary was bodily assumed into heaven and never died. What does the Scripture say? It is silent on this issue, and therefore it is impossible to validate this teaching.
Paul wrote “not to think of men above that which is written” (1 Corinthians 4:6). Is the Roman Catholic Church thinking of Mary above that which is written? A resounding yes!